Welcome to Part 2 of the ITI Departmental Examination 2025 – Paper III (Allied Laws): Answers & Explanations. In this part, we cover Questions 51–100, which focus on important provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC), Mitakshara Hindu Law, Registration Act, 1908, Right to Information Act, 2005, and selected provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. These topics are regularly tested in the Income Tax Inspector Departmental Examination and require a clear understanding of both legal principles and their practical application.
Each question is presented with the official answer along with a concise explanation to help candidates quickly revise the underlying legal concept. Practising these previous year questions will not only improve conceptual clarity but also familiarize aspirants with the examination pattern, enabling them to perform better in future departmental examinations.
Question 51. Application where Review is granted by the Court if the Court is of opinion that the application for review should be granted, it shall grant the same, provided that:
Statement I: No such application shall be granted without previous notice to the opposite party, to enable him to appear and be heard in support of the decree or order, a review of which is applied for.
Statement II: No such application shall be granted on the ground of discovery of new matter or evidence which the applicant alleges was not within his knowledge, or could not be produced when the decree or order was passed, without strict proof of such allegation.
a) Statement I and Statement II both are correct and operate together.
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
c) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.
d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct.
Correct Answer: (a) Statement I and Statement II both are correct and operate together.
Explanation: Both conditions are mandatory while granting a review under the CPC.
Question 52. Instructions: The following question consists of an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A decree can be reviewed only when there is an error apparent on the face of the record.
Reason (R): “Error apparent on the face of the record” includes errors which can be seen without any lengthy process of factual investigation.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer: (c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: A review is maintainable where there is an obvious error apparent on the face of the record requiring no elaborate reasoning.
Question 53. Which properties cannot be attached under Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure?
a) Salary of a Government employee
b) Books of account
c) Property belonging to a widow
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Section 60 CPC exempts specified properties, including certain salaries and books of account, from attachment, and the question’s official answer is option (d).
Question 54. A plaintiff wants to summon a Government officer as a witness. Under Order XVI of the Code of Civil Procedure, what should the plaintiff do?
a) Directly send a notice to the officer.
b) Request the Court to issue a summons and, if necessary, seek permission from the Government.
c) Arrest the officer if he refuses to appear.
d) Demand the officer’s attendance through an administrative order.
Correct Answer: (b) Request the Court to issue a summons and, if necessary, seek permission from the Government.
Explanation: A Government officer is summoned through the Court in accordance with Order XVI CPC.
Question 55. As per Section 61 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which authority may exempt a portion of agricultural produce or any class of agricultural produce from attachment or sale in execution of a decree?
a) The Supreme Court
b) The State Government
c) The Central Government
d) The High Court
Correct Answer: (b) The State Government
Explanation: Section 61 CPC empowers the State Government to exempt specified agricultural produce from attachment.
Question 56. In respect of one and the same decree, attachment of salary under Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 can continue for a total period of:
a) 12 months
b) 24 months
c) 36 months
d) As considered reasonable
Correct Answer: (b) 24 months
Explanation: Under Order XXI CPC, salary attachment in execution of the same decree is subject to the prescribed statutory limit.
Question 57. According to Order XIX of the Code of Civil Procedure, consider the following statements regarding the power to order attendance of a deponent for cross-examination:
Statement I: Upon any application, evidence may be given by affidavit, but the Court may, at the instance of either party, order the attendance of the deponent for cross-examination.
Statement II: Such attendance shall be in Court unless the deponent is exempted from personal appearance.
Choose the incorrect option.
a) Statements I and II are correct.
b) Statement II is incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct.
d) None of the above.
Correct Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation: Both statements are correct; therefore, there is no incorrect statement among the options.
Question 58. Under Mitakshara Law, a coparcenary consists of up to how many generations?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Correct Answer: (c) Four
Explanation: Under Mitakshara Law, a coparcenary extends up to four generations from the last holder.
Question 59. A coparcener’s share in the joint family property is:
a) Fixed and cannot be changed.
b) Fluctuating, depending on births and deaths.
c) Equal among all family members.
d) Determined only after partition.
Correct Answer: (b) Fluctuating, depending on births and deaths.
Explanation: A coparcener’s interest changes with births and deaths in the coparcenary until partition takes place.
Question 60. What happens to a coparcener’s share in case of his death before partition?
a) It goes to the eldest son.
b) It passes by survivorship or succession.
c) It is given to the State.
d) It is lost.
Correct Answer: (b) It passes by survivorship or succession.
Explanation: Depending upon the applicable law and amendments, the interest devolves by survivorship or succession.
Question 61. The property acquired by a coparcener using joint family funds is considered:
a) Coparcenary property
b) Self-acquired property
c) Divisible property
d) Government property
Correct Answer: (a) Coparcenary property
Explanation: Property purchased from joint family funds retains the character of coparcenary property.
Question 62. What is “Blending of Property” in Hindu Law?
a) Mixing personal and Government property.
b) Mixing self-acquired property with joint family property.
c) Donating property to charity.
d) Selling coparcenary property.
Correct Answer: (b) Mixing self-acquired property with joint family property.
Explanation: Blending is the voluntary act of treating self-acquired property as joint family property.
Question 63. What is the term for property obtained through inheritance from a maternal grandfather?
a) Coparcenary property
b) Separate property
c) Joint family property
d) Blended property
Correct Answer: (b) Separate property
Explanation: Property inherited from the maternal grandfather is treated as separate property under Hindu Law.
Question 64. In a coparcenary under Mitakshara Law, what happens to the interest of a deceased coparcener who dies intestate after the 2005 amendment?
a) It devolves by intestate succession under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
b) It passes only to male members by survivorship.
c) It is equally distributed among all coparceners.
d) It escheats to the Government.
Correct Answer: (a) It devolves by intestate succession under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
Explanation: After the 2005 amendment, the deceased coparcener’s interest devolves by succession rather than survivorship.
Question 65. Under Mitakshara Law, which of the following statements regarding the right of a posthumous child (born after the father’s death) is correct?
a) A posthumous child has no right in coparcenary property.
b) A posthumous son has the same coparcenary rights as if he were born before the father’s death.
c) A posthumous son can claim property only if partition has not occurred.
d) A posthumous son can inherit only if named in the Will.
Correct Answer: (b) A posthumous son has the same coparcenary rights as if he were born before the father’s death.
Explanation: A posthumous son enjoys the same coparcenary rights as though he had been born before the father’s death.
Question 66. If a Hindu joint family consists of a father and three sons, and the father dies intestate before 2005, how is the property distributed under Mitakshara Law?
a) By survivorship among the three sons, with the father’s interest merging into the coparcenary.
b) The father’s share is equally divided among all legal heirs, including daughters.
c) The property is divided into four equal parts.
d) The entire property goes to the eldest son.
Correct Answer: (a) By survivorship among the three sons, with the father’s interest merging into the coparcenary.
Explanation: Prior to the 2005 amendment, the father’s coparcenary interest ordinarily devolved by survivorship under Mitakshara Law.
Question 67. Rahul, a Hindu governed by Mitakshara Law, has three sons. He transfers ancestral property by gift to his friend without legal necessity or the consent of his sons. The sons challenge the transfer. What is the likely outcome?
a) The transfer is valid and cannot be challenged.
b) The transfer is voidable at the option of the sons.
c) The transfer is automatically void.
d) The sons must wait until their father’s death.
Correct Answer: (b) The transfer is voidable at the option of the sons.
Explanation: An unauthorized gift of ancestral coparcenary property may be challenged by the other coparceners.
Question 68. After the death of her father in 2010, Meena claims a share in the joint family property under Mitakshara Law. Her brothers contend that the property had already been partitioned in 2003. What is the correct legal position?
a) She can claim her share only if partition occurred after 2005.
b) She can claim her share even if partition was before 2005 because the claim was made after her father’s death in 2010.
c) She has no right in any circumstance under Mitakshara Law.
d) She can claim only maintenance.
Correct Answer: (a) She can claim her share only if partition occurred after 2005.
Explanation: A valid partition effected before the statutory cut-off is protected under the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005.
Question 69. A transfer by a Mitakshara coparcener of his undivided interest in the joint family property by way of gift is:
a) Void ab initio.
b) Voidable at the instance of the donor.
c) Voidable at the instance of the other coparceners.
d) Valid.
Correct Answer: (a) Void ab initio.
Explanation: A gift of an undivided coparcenary interest by a Mitakshara coparcener is void under traditional Hindu Law.
Question 70. Under Mitakshara Law, a father:
a) Has the power to alienate his son’s share after partition if the alienation relates to a debt contracted before partition.
b) Has the power to alienate his son’s share after partition if the alienation relates to a debt contracted after partition.
c) Has no power to alienate his son’s share after partition even if the alienation relates to a debt contracted before partition.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Correct Answer: (a) Has the power to alienate his son’s share after partition if the alienation relates to a debt contracted before partition.
Explanation: A father’s special power extends to alienation for discharge of antecedent debts incurred before partition, subject to the conditions recognized under Hindu Law.
Question 71. When alienation is made by the manager without legal necessity but with the consent of all other coparceners, they being all adults, it is:
a) Void ab initio
b) Void to the extent of the share of other coparceners
c) Valid in its entirety
d) Voidable at the instance of the coparceners
Correct Answer: (c) Valid in its entirety
Explanation: Alienation with the consent of all adult coparceners is valid even in the absence of legal necessity.
Question 72. What is the rule of devolution of coparcenary property under Mitakshara Law in case of a coparcener’s death without a Will?
a) The property is inherited by the deceased coparcener’s heirs.
b) The property devolves by survivorship among the remaining coparceners.
c) The property is sold and the proceeds are distributed among the remaining coparceners and heirs of the deceased coparcener.
d) The property remains unaffected.
Correct Answer: (b) The property devolves by survivorship among the remaining coparceners.
Explanation: Under the traditional Mitakshara rule, coparcenary interest devolves by survivorship unless modified by statutory provisions.
Question 73. When a minor coparcener files a suit for partition through his guardian or next friend and the Court finds the partition to be for the welfare of the minor, the partition/severance of status takes place from the date:
a) Of the institution of the suit.
b) Of the Court’s order.
c) Fixed by the Court.
d) Agreed upon by the parties.
Correct Answer: (a) Of the institution of the suit.
Explanation: Once the Court finds the partition beneficial to the minor, severance relates back to the date of institution of the suit.
Question 74. Who amongst the following has a right to challenge the alienation of joint Hindu property?
a) A coparcener in the womb at the time of alienation.
b) A coparcener conceived and born after the alienation.
c) An adopted son adopted after the alienation.
d) All of the above.
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above.
Explanation: Each of the above persons may challenge the alienation subject to the principles governing coparcenary rights.
Question 75. In relation to fire-proof boxes under Section 16 of the Registration Act, 1908, which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the State Government?
a) Providing a fire-proof box for the office of every Registrar.
b) Ensuring the safe custody of registration records at the district level.
c) Monitoring daily transactions recorded in registration books.
d) Making suitable provisions for document security within the district.
Correct Answer: (c) Monitoring daily transactions recorded in registration books.
Explanation: Section 16 relates to preservation and security of registration records, not day-to-day monitoring of transactions.
Question 76. As per Section 17 of the Registration Act, 1908, which of the following documents is NOT required to be compulsorily registered?
a) Instruments of gift of immovable property.
b) A lease of immovable property for five years with an annual rent of Rs. 100.
c) A non-testamentary instrument extinguishing a vested interest in immovable property valued at Rs. 200.
d) A decree of a Court creating an interest in immovable property worth Rs. 1,000.
Correct Answer: (d) A decree of a Court creating an interest in immovable property worth Rs. 1,000.
Explanation: Certain Court decrees are exempt from compulsory registration under Section 17 of the Registration Act.
Question 77. Which of the following must be registered if executed after the commencement of the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001?
a) A document containing a contract to transfer immovable property under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
b) A testamentary instrument related to immovable property.
c) A lease for a period of six months.
d) A Memorandum of Understanding for a property transaction.
Correct Answer: (a) A document containing a contract to transfer immovable property under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
Explanation: After the 2001 amendment, documents covered by Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act require compulsory registration.
Question 78. Which of the following remains valid and enforceable even if it is not registered under the Registration Act, 1908?
a) A Will bequeathing a house.
b) A gift deed transferring ancestral property.
c) A family settlement involving ownership of immovable property.
d) A Memorandum of Understanding stating future intention to sell property.
Correct Answer: (a) A Will bequeathing a house.
Explanation: Registration of a Will is optional; an unregistered Will is valid if otherwise legally executed.
Question 79. Who is entitled to present a Will for registration under Section 40 of the Registration Act, 1908, after the testator’s death?
a) Any legal heir of the testator.
b) Any person claiming as executor or otherwise under the Will.
c) Any Sub-Registrar within whose jurisdiction the Will was executed.
d) Only a registered attorney of the testator.
Correct Answer: (b) Any person claiming as executor or otherwise under the Will.
Explanation: Section 40 authorizes the executor or any person claiming under the Will to present it for registration after the testator’s death.
Question 80. Consider the following statements regarding registration and deposit of Wills under the Registration Act, 1908:
- A Registrar is required to register a Will if it is presented by the testator during his lifetime.
- A sealed Will deposited with a Registrar can be withdrawn only by the testator or an authorized agent.
- If a Court orders production of a Will, the Registrar must directly send the original document to the Court.
- A Registrar must record details of a deposited Will in Register Book No. 5.
Which of the statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 4 correctly reflect the provisions relating to registration and deposit of Wills; Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 81. A testator deposits his Will with the Registrar in a sealed cover under Section 42 of the Registration Act, 1908. After his death, his son applies for the Will to be opened. What will the Registrar do under Section 45 of the Registration Act, 1908?
a) Hand over the sealed cover to the applicant without opening it.
b) Open the sealed cover in the applicant’s presence, copy the Will into Register Book No. 3, and then re-deposit the original Will.
c) Send the Will directly to the District Court for validation.
d) Destroy the Will if no executor is mentioned.
Correct Answer: (b) Open the sealed cover in the applicant’s presence, copy the Will into Register Book No. 3, and then re-deposit the original Will.
Explanation: Section 45 requires the Registrar to open the sealed cover in the presence of the applicant, copy the Will into Register Book No. 3, and preserve the original.
Question 82. As per Section 43 of the Registration Act, 1908, when can a Will deposited with the Registrar be withdrawn?
a) Only after the testator’s death.
b) Only by the testator during his lifetime.
c) By any person named as an executor.
d) By the legal heirs of the testator.
Correct Answer: (b) Only by the testator during his lifetime.
Explanation: A deposited Will may be withdrawn only by the testator during his lifetime or by a duly authorized agent.
Question 83. Which of the following is NOT a requirement before a document can be registered under Section 60 of the Registration Act, 1908?
a) Compliance with Sections 34, 35, 58 and 59 (as applicable).
b) Payment of stamp duty under the Indian Stamp Act.
c) Endorsement of a certificate by the registering officer.
d) Entry of the document’s details in the appropriate register.
Correct Answer: (b) Payment of stamp duty under the Indian Stamp Act.
Explanation: Section 60 deals with registration formalities. Payment of stamp duty is governed by the Indian Stamp Act and is not a specific requirement under Section 60 itself.
Question 84. Under the proviso to Section 17(1) of the Registration Act, the State Government may exempt certain leases from compulsory registration. Which leases may be exempted?
a) Leases for exactly one year, regardless of rent.
b) All leases relating to agricultural land.
c) Leases executed by or on behalf of the Government only.
d) Leases not exceeding five years in duration and with annual rent not exceeding Rs. 50.
Correct Answer: (d) Leases not exceeding five years in duration and with annual rent not exceeding Rs. 50.
Explanation: The proviso to Section 17(1) empowers the State Government to exempt specified short-term, low-rent leases from compulsory registration.
Question 85. A debenture issued by a company, which does not itself create or transfer any interest in immovable property (apart from the security afforded by a duly registered mortgage or trust deed), is:
a) Not required to be registered under the Registration Act, 1908.
b) Compulsorily registrable as it involves an interest in the company’s assets.
c) Invalid for want of registration under Section 17(1).
d) Required to be registered only if its value exceeds Rs. 100.
Correct Answer: (a) Not required to be registered under the Registration Act, 1908.
Explanation: Such a debenture does not itself create or transfer an interest in immovable property and therefore does not require compulsory registration.
Question 86. A Will deposited under Section 42 of the Registration Act, 1908, must be delivered to the proper officer. According to that section, a Will can be deposited in a sealed cover only with:
a) Any Sub-Registrar having jurisdiction over the place where the Will was executed.
b) A Registrar (of a district or Presidency town).
c) A Judge or Magistrate designated by the State Government.
d) The testator’s lawyer or agent, who then informs the Registrar.
Correct Answer: (b) A Registrar (of a district or Presidency town).
Explanation: Section 42 specifically provides for deposit of a sealed Will with the Registrar.
Question 87. Section 48 of the Registration Act, 1908 implies that:
a) All non-testamentary documents duly registered under the Act relating to movable or immovable property take effect against any oral agreement or declaration relating to such property, except where accompanied or followed by delivery of possession constituting a valid transfer under law.
b) A mortgage as defined in Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, takes effect against any subsequently executed and registered mortgage deed relating to the same property.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) None of the above.
Correct Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: Section 48 gives priority to registered documents and contains the proviso relating to mortgages.
Question 88. According to the Right to Information Act, 2005, while disclosing third-party information, what must a Central/State Public Information Officer do?
a) Notify the third party after disclosing the information.
b) Give the third party written notice within 10 days and consider their submission.
c) Give the third party written notice within 5 days, invite a written/oral response, and consider the submission.
d) Reject the request without consulting the third party.
Correct Answer: (c) Give the third party written notice within 5 days, invite a written/oral response, and consider the submission.
Explanation: Section 11 of the RTI Act requires notice to the third party within five days and consideration of its representation before disclosure.
Question 89. Within how many days must an appeal be filed under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
a) 15 days
b) 60 days
c) 30 days
d) 90 days
Correct Answer: (c) 30 days
Explanation: A first appeal under Section 19(1) of the RTI Act is ordinarily required to be filed within 30 days.
Question 90. The Second Schedule of the Right to Information Act, 2005 deals with:
a) Intelligence and Security Organisations established by the Central Government.
b) Intelligence and Security Organisations established by the Governor.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Correct Answer: (a) Intelligence and Security Organisations established by the Central Government.
Explanation: The Second Schedule lists the intelligence and security organisations established by the Central Government that are exempt from the RTI Act, subject to specified exceptions.
Question 91. The First Appellate Authority under the Right to Information Act, 2005 should decide the first appeal:
a) Within 30 days from the receipt of the first appeal.
b) Within 90 days from the receipt of the first appeal.
c) In exceptional cases, within 45 days from the date of receipt of the appeal, provided the reasons are recorded in writing.
d) Both (a) and (c).
Correct Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c).
Explanation: Under Section 19(6) of the RTI Act, the first appeal should ordinarily be decided within 30 days and may be extended up to 45 days for recorded reasons.
Question 92. Who is the Chairperson of the Committee for appointment of the State Information Commissioner?
a) Central Public Information Commissioner
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief Minister
d) Governor
Correct Answer: (c) Chief Minister
Explanation: Under the RTI Act, the Chief Minister heads the committee recommending appointment of the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners.
Question 93. Please go through the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Third parties must be consulted before disclosing their confidential information.
Statement 2: Third parties can legally block the disclosure of their information under all circumstances.
a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Correct Answer: (c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Explanation: Consultation with the third party is mandatory where applicable, but the third party does not possess an absolute right to prevent disclosure.
Question 94. Under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following is considered a “Public Authority”?
a) Private companies
b) NGOs substantially financed by Government funds
c) Foreign embassies
d) Political parties
Correct Answer: (b) NGOs substantially financed by Government funds.
Explanation: Section 2(h) includes NGOs substantially financed directly or indirectly by Government funds within the definition of “Public Authority”.
Question 95. What is the time limit for providing information under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act?
a) Within 15 days for all requests.
b) Within 30 days for general requests and within 48 hours if it concerns life or liberty.
c) Within 60 days for all requests.
d) Within 9 days for sensitive information and 72 hours if it concerns life or liberty.
Correct Answer: (b) Within 30 days for general requests and within 48 hours if it concerns life or liberty.
Explanation: Section 7(1) prescribes 30 days as the normal limit and 48 hours where the information concerns the life or liberty of a person.
Question 96. Please go through the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: NGOs substantially financed by Government funds are considered Public Authorities under Section 2(h).
Statement 2: Private companies are automatically considered Public Authorities.
a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Correct Answer: (c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Explanation: NGOs substantially financed by the Government are covered under Section 2(h), whereas private companies are not automatically public authorities.
Question 97. What happens if part of a record requested under the RTI Act contains exempted information?
a) The entire record is withheld from disclosure to protect sensitive information.
b) Only the exempted part is withheld while the remaining non-exempt information is disclosed to the applicant.
c) The applicant must submit a revised application excluding the exempted portion.
d) The request is automatically rejected without assigning any reason.
Correct Answer: (b) Only the exempted part is withheld while the remaining non-exempt information is disclosed to the applicant.
Explanation: Under Section 10 of the RTI Act, exempt information is severed and the remaining record is disclosed.
Question 98. Please go through the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Personal information can always be denied under the RTI Act to protect privacy.
Statement 2: Personal information may be disclosed if it relates to a public activity and serves the larger public interest.
a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
d) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Correct Answer: (c) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Explanation: Personal information is not absolutely exempt; it may be disclosed where larger public interest justifies disclosure.
Question 99. Please go through the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Copyrighted material cannot be disclosed under the RTI Act without the owner’s consent.
Statement 2: Copyright protection overrides all public interest considerations under the RTI Act.
a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Correct Answer: (c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Explanation: Information protected by copyright is governed by Section 9 of the RTI Act, but copyright does not override every public interest consideration under the Act.
Question 100. Under Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following statements is correct regarding the creation of leases?
a) Leases exceeding one year or reserving yearly rent must be made by a registered instrument, while leases for shorter periods may be created either by a registered instrument or by oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession.
b) Leases of immovable property for more than one year or reserving yearly rent must be made only through oral agreements, while shorter leases may be registered.
c) All leases, irrespective of duration or rent, must be created only by a registered instrument unless otherwise notified by the State Government.
d) Leases for more than one year or reserving yearly rent are valid merely by oral agreement, whereas shorter leases must always be registered.
Correct Answer: (a) Leases exceeding one year or reserving yearly rent must be made by a registered instrument, while leases for shorter periods may be created either by a registered instrument or by oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession.
Explanation: Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act mandates registration for leases exceeding one year or reserving yearly rent, while shorter leases may be created orally with delivery of possession or through a registered instrument.
Conclusion
This concludes Part 2 of our ITI Departmental Examination 2025 – Allied Laws (Paper III): Answers & Explanations series, covering Questions 51–100. These questions provide comprehensive practice on important provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Mitakshara Hindu Law, Registration Act, 1908, Right to Information Act, 2005, and the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Since these statutes form a significant portion of the Allied Laws syllabus, mastering these concepts is essential for scoring well in the Departmental Examination.
We hope this solved question set has strengthened your conceptual understanding and helped you revise the legal provisions in an exam-oriented manner. Continue practising previous year papers and stay connected with Simple Income Tax for more authentic study material, solved papers, practice MCQs, and comprehensive guides for the Income Tax Inspector Departmental Examination 2025. Best wishes for your preparation and success in the examination!
Related link on Simple Income Tax
- ITI Departmental Examination 2025 (Paper I): Solved Previous Year Question Paper with Answers & Explanations (PART-1)
- ITI Departmental Examination 2025 (Paper I): Solved Previous Year Question Paper with Answers & Explanations (Part-2)
- ITI Departmental Examination 2025 (Paper I): Solved Previous Year Question Paper with Answers & Explanations (Part – 3)
- ITI Departmental Examination 2025 – Paper II (Book Keeping) – Solved Previous Year Question Paper with Answers & Explanations (Part 1)
- ITI Departmental Examination 2025 Paper II (Book Keeping): Questions 51–100 with Answers & Explanations (Part 2)
- ITI Departmental Examination 2025 – Allied Laws (Paper III) – Answers & Explanations [PART-1]
Readers may refer to the relevant provisions of the Income Tax Act, 2025, CBDT notifications, rules and circulars available on the official Income Tax Department website for the latest amendments and procedural guidance.
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